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Which of the following actions by the Fed would cause the money supply to increase?


A) purchases of government bonds from banks
B) an increase in the reserve requirement
C) an increase in the discount rate
D) sales of government bonds to the public

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Before the financial crisis of 2008, if the Fed wanted to lower the Federal funds rate, it


A) increased the discount rate.
B) increased the reserve ratio.
C) bought bonds from banks and the public.
D) sold bonds to banks and the public.

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The interest rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks is called the


A) prime rate.
B) short-term rate.
C) discount rate.
D) federal funds rate.

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In response to the zero lower bound problem,


A) the Fed implemented the zero interest rate policy (ZIRP) .
B) Congress approved additional fiscal stimulus in 2010.
C) the Fed pursued quantitative easing.
D) the Fed ended its forward commitment in order to encourage further lending.

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The prime interest rate


A) is lower than the federal funds rate because it is the rate charged to a bank's most creditworthy customers.
B) usually is at the same level as the federal funds rate.
C) is a benchmark interest rate set directly by the Fed.
D) is influenced by Fed policies that change the money supply.

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Assume that the price level is flexible both upward and downward and that the Fed's policy is to keep the price level from either rising or falling.If aggregate supply increases in the economy, the Fed


A) will have to increase interest rates to keep the price level from falling.
B) will have to reduce the money supply to keep the price level from rising.
C) will have to increase the money supply to keep the price level from falling.
D) can keep the price level stable without altering the money supply or interest rate.

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If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public,


A) commercial bank reserves will decline.
B) commercial bank reserves will be unaffected.
C) it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks.
D) the money supply will contract.

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Other things equal, an appreciation of the U.S.dollar would


A) increase productivity and increase aggregate supply.
B) decrease net exports and decrease aggregate demand.
C) increase the prices of imported resources and decrease aggregate supply.
D) decrease the supply of money and decrease aggregate demand.

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An expansionary monetary policy may be frustrated if the


A) demand-for-money curve shifts to the left.
B) investment-demand curve shifts to the left.
C) saving schedule shifts downward.
D) investment-demand curve shifts to the right.

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Other things equal, an increase in taxes on businesses will


A) increase aggregate supply, decrease aggregate demand, and cause the price level to fall.
B) increase aggregate supply, increase aggregate demand, and cause real GDP to rise.
C) decrease aggregate supply, decrease aggregate demand, and cause real GDP to fall.
D) decrease aggregate supply, increase aggregate demand, and cause the price level to rise.

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Assume that the required reserve ratio is 20 percent.If the Federal Reserve buys $80 million in government securities from commercial banks, then the money supply will immediately


A) increase by $0 with this transaction, and the maximum money-lending potential of the commercial banking system will increase by $400 million.
B) increase by $0 with this transaction, but the maximum money-lending potential of the commercial banking system will increase by $320 million.
C) increase by $80 million with this transaction, and the maximum money-lending potential of the commercial banking system will increase by another
D) increase by $80 million with this transaction, and the maximum money-lending potential of the commercial banking system will decrease by another

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The ZIRP (zero interest rate policy) of the Fed led to the so-called zero lower bound problem, which refers to the problem of


A) having a very low level of employment with zero new jobs created.
B) huge budget deficits leaving the government no more ability to spend.
C) interest rates that can't go any lower, i.e., they cannot be driven down below zero.
D) zero real-GDP growth due to very weak aggregate demand.

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When the Fed undertakes a "repo" transaction with a financial institution, the Fed in essence


A) grants a collateralized loan to the financial institution.
B) provides an insurance coverage to the financial institution.
C) buys shares of stock of the financial institution.
D) reduces the reserves of the financial institution.

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If, in the market for money, the amount of money supplied exceeds the amount of money households and businesses want to hold, the interest rate will


A) fall, causing households and businesses to hold less money.
B) rise, causing households and businesses to hold less money.
C) rise, causing households and businesses to hold more money.
D) fall, causing households and businesses to hold more money.

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In traditional (before 2008) analysis, an autonomous increase in investment spending when the economy is at full employment will cause the Fed to seek a lower target for the federal funds rate by buying securities in the open market.

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Which of the following statements is most accurate about the Fed's zero interest rate policy (ZIRP) ?


A) The Fed has abandoned the ZIRP, recognizing the need to reduce nominal interest rates to below zero.
B) As of 2016, the ZIRP is being pursued by the Fed.
C) It ended in late 2015, with the Fed increasing the IOER and engaging in reverse repo transactions.
D) In an effort to end the ZIRP, the Fed prohibited nonbank lending to banks.

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The Fed's inability to stimulate the economy by reducing interest rates is known as the


A) zero lower bound problem.
B) zero upper bound problem.
C) negative interest rate problem.
D) quantitative easing problem.

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In recent years (after the financial crisis of 2008) , the Fed has added a new element to its open-market operations, which is


A) buying and selling foreign-government securities.
B) taking government bonds as collateral on loans to banks and other financial institutions.
C) the trading of state- and local-government bonds.
D) accepting corporate stocks and bonds as bank reserves.

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Assume that the commercial banking system has checkable deposits of $10 billion and excess reserves of $1 billion at a time when the reserve requirement is 20 percent.If the reserve requirement is now raised to 30 percent, the banking system then has


A) excess reserves of $2 billion.
B) neither an excess nor a deficiency of reserves.
C) a deficiency of reserves of $.5 billion.
D) excess reserves of only $.5 billion.

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According to the Taylor rule,


A) for every 1 percentage point that unemployment exceeds the natural rate of unemployment, there is a 2-percentage-point gap between potential and actual GDP.
B) growth in the money supply should be limited to the long-run average growth rate of real GDP.
C) if inflation rises by 1 percentage point above its target, then the Fed should raise the real federal funds rate by one-half a percentage point.
D) the rate of money growth should be set at 4 percent per year.

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